[收藏] PMP试题（435道）
1. Communications is best described as:
A. an exchange of information.
B. providing written or oral directions.
C. consists of senders and receivers
D. effective listening.
E. All of the above
ANS: E
2. Fixed Price contracts place more risk on the:
A. owner
B. buyer
C. seller
D. contractor
E. C or D
ANS: E
3. Life cycle costing is the total cost to the customer for the acquisition and ownership over its full life. Life cycle costing categories include the cost
of _____, _____, and _____.
A. R & D, maintainability, operation and support.
B. R & D, production, operation and support.
C. Acquisition, operations, maintenance.
D. Production, operations, maintenance.
E. None of the above
ANS: B
4. Management By Objectives assumes that the team:
A. is receptive to an unstructured environment.
B. does not require close supervision.
C. possesses a self directed philosophy
D. identifies with project objectives.
E. All of the above.
ANS: E
5. Quality may be defined as:
A. conformance to requirements.
B. fitness for use.
C. continuous improvement of products and services
D. appeal to the customer
E. All of the above except B
ANS: E
6. Since risk is associated with most projects, the best course of action is to:
A. cover all project risks by buying appropriate insurance
B. ignore the risks, since nothing can be done about them and move forward with the project in an expeditious manner.
C. avoid projects with clear and present risks
D. eliminate all known risks prior to the execution phase of the project
E. identify various risks and implement actions to mitigate their potential impact
ANS: E
7. The process of choosing/documenting the best approach to achieve the project objectives is part of:
A. The scope baseline.
B. Scope authorization
C. Scope definition
D. Scope planning.
E. All of the above.
ANS: D
8. Time management is the allocation of time in a project's life cycle through the process of:
A. Planning
B. Estimating.
C. Scheduling.
D. Controlling
E. All of the above.
ANS: E
9. A comprehensive definition of scope management would be:
A. Managing a project in terms of its objective through the concept, development, implementation, and termination phases of a project.
B. Approval of the scope baseline.
C. Approval of the detailed project charter.
D. Configuration control.
E. Approved detailed planning including budgets, resource allocation, linear responsibility charts and management sponsorship.
ANS: A
10. Cost Plus Percentage of Cost contracts are more desirable for the:
A. owner
B. buyer
C. seller
D. contractor
E. C or D
ANS: E
11. Management styles associated with production environments, such as assembly lines commonly include:
A. a directing style of leadership.
B. a lack of confidence in their workers
C. assumption that workers lack ambition and dislike responsibility
D. a Theory X style of leadership
E. All of the above.
ANS: E
12. Quality management:
A. is another name for careful inspections.
B. is inversely related to productivity.
C. is primarily the responsiblity of management.
D. is primarily the responsibility of the workers.
E. is essentially a motivational technique.
ANS: C
13. Risk management allows the project manager and the project team to:
A. eliminate most risks during the planning phase of the project
B. identify project risks
C. identify impacts of various risks
D. plan suitable responses
E. B, C and D only
ANS: E
14. Scheduling is the process by which decisions are made concerning:
A. Tasks to be accomplished.
B. Personnel/organization that will be assigned to accomplish the task.
C. Time when the tasks are to be completed.
D. All of the above.
E. A and C only.
ANS: E
15. The basic elements of communication include:
A. Listening, talking and sign language.
B. Communicator, encoding, message, medium, decoding, receiver, and feedback
C. Clarity of speech and good listening habits
D. Reading, writing and listening
E. All of the above
ANS: B
16. Which of the following would most likely increase the accuracy of estimating the project cost?
A. Pricing out the work at lower levels in the work breakdown structure.
B. Using historical data.
C. Talking to people who have worked on similar projects.
D. All of the above.
E. A and C only.
ANS: D
17. A variance envelope has been established on a project. The envelope goes from +-30% in R&D to +-5% during manufacturing. The reason for
the change in thickness of the envelope is because:
A. The management reserve has been used up.
B. The accuracy of the estimates in manufacturing are worse than the estimates in R & D.
C. Tighter controls are always needed as a project begins to wind down.
D. Of the personal desires of the project sponsor.
E. Of none of the above
ANS: E
18. Cost of quality is:
A. associated with non-conformance to specifications and requirements.
B. primarily caused by poor workmanship of workers who are building or manufacturing the product.
C. used to determine whether a quality management program is suitable for a given project.
D. negligible for most large projects.
E. A and B
ANS: A
19. Management plans include all of the following except:
A. Organization of project.
B. Job deｓcriptions.
C. Policies and procedures.
D. Linear responsibility charts.
E. Scope baseline.
ANS: E
20. The Japanese resource management model exhibits:
A. a cooperative spirit of goal setting.
B. non-specialized career paths
C. frequent changes in team assignments
D. a Theory Z style of management
E. All of the above.
ANS: E
21. The highest degrees of project risk and uncertainty are associated with the following phase of the project:
A. conceptual
B. execution
C. cut-over
D. post project evaluation
E. A and D only
ANS: A
22. The most common types of schedules are Gantt charts, milestone charts, line of balance, and:
A. Networks.
B. Time phased events.
C. Calendar integrated activities.
D. A and C only.
E. B and C only.
ANS: A
23. Which of the following is often overlooked in achieving effective communication?
A. speaking clearly
B. listening
C. interpreting
D. maintaining eye contact
E. manipulating the conversation
ANS: B
24. Which type of contract requires that the buyer keep the tightest labor/material cost control?
A. Cost Plus Incentive Fee
B. Cost Plus Percentage of Costs
C. Cost Plus Fixed Fee
D. Firm Fixed Price
E. Firm Fixed Price Plus Incentive
ANS: B
25. A task-oriented family tree of activities is a:
A. Detailed plan.
B. Linear responsibility chart.
C. Work breakdown structure.
D. Cost account coding system.
E. Work package deｓcription.
ANS: C
26. Adding 5 people to a 4 person team increases the communication channels by a factor of:
A. 2 times
B. 3 times
C. 4 times
D. 5 times
E. 6 times
ANS: E
27. Cost management includes:
A. Cost estimating/forecasting.
B. Cost budgeting/cost control.
C. Cost applications.
D. All of the above.
E. A and B only.
ANS: D
28. Participative Management:
A. involves the solicitation of information from all team members.
B. assumes that members avoid work and responsibility.
C. suggests the sharing of power and decision making.
D. employs a Theory X style of leadership.
E. A and C
ANS: E
29. The auditing function that provides feedback about the quality of output is referred to as:
A. quality control.
B. quality planning.
C. quality assurance.
D. quality improvement
E. All of the above.
ANS: C
30. The lowest dollar amount 'at stake' is associated with the following phase of the project:
A. conceptual
B. execution
C. cut-over
D. post project evaluation
E. A and D only
ANS: A
31. The major disadvantage of a bar chart is:
A. Lack of time-phasing.
B. Cannot be related to calendar dates.
C. does not show activity interrelationships.
D. Cannot be related to manpower planning.
E. Cannot be related to cost estimates.
ANS: C
32. Which contract type consists of - target costs & profit, ceiling prices and shared ratio of risk?
A. Cost Plus Incentive Fee
B. Cost Plus Percentage of Costs
C. Cost Plus Fixed Fee
D. Firm Fixed Price
E. Firm Fixed Price Plus Incentive
ANS: E
33. Methods and techniques used to examine cost and technical data are called feasibility studies. The economic aspects of a feasibility study
include interest rates, present worth factors, operating costs, depreciation and _____.
A. Capitalization costs.
B. Technical skill requirements.
C. Technology forecasting.
D. Strategic marketing intelligence.
E. All of the above.
ANS: A
34. Standard of purchased material:
A. Simplifies inventory control
B. reduces the risk of obsolescence
C. reduces cost of purchasing and storage
D. All of the above.
E. A and C only.
ANS: E
35. The "control points" in the work breakdown structure used for isolated assignments to work centers are referred to as:
A. Work packages.
B. Subtasks.
C. Tasks.
D. Code of accounts.
E. Integration points.
ANS: C
36. The utility of network-based schedules:
A. Reveals interdependencies.
B. Facilitates "what if" exercises.
C. Highlights critical activities.
D. Provides information on resource requirements, time requirements and tradeoffs.
E. All of the above.
ANS: E
37. The way a project manager sends and receives information depends upon:
A. How others relate to the project manager
B. The project manager's level in the organizational hierarchy
C. the size and nature of the project
D. the project manager's salary and age
E. the number of projects going on at one time in the company
ANS: A
38. Uncertainty refers to a situation where:
A. the outcomes are known but their probabilities are high
B. the outcomes and their probabilities are known
C. neither the outcomes nor their probabilities are known
D. states of nature can change at any time
E. probabilities of various states of nature can change at any time
ANS: C
39. Which of the following is closet to Deming's definition of Quality:
A. conformance to requirements.
B. fitness for use.
C. continuous improvement of products and services.
D. customer focus.
E. All of the above.
ANS: C
40. It is useful to conduct project risk assessment according to the project's
A. charter
B. statement of work
C. Work Breakdown structure
D. network
E. budget
ANS: C
41. Management decision-making includes:
A. Analysis of alternatives.
B. Revisions/replanning.
C. Resource allocation.
D. Modification or updating of goals and objectives.
E. All of the above.
ANS: E
42. The basic terminology for networks includes:
A. Activities, events, manpower, skill levels and slack.
B. Activities, documentation, events, manpower and skill levels.
C. Slack, activities, events, and time estimates.
D. Time estimates, slack, sponsorship involvement, and activities.
E. Time estimates, slack time, report writing, life cycle phases, and crashing times.
ANS: C
43. The project manager must receive reports and briefings from engineers, contracting officers, procurement personnel and marketing people.
The project manager's communication dilemma is one of:
A. encoding
B. decoding
C. choice of a medium
D. one-way communication
E. All of the above.
ANS: E
44. The technique most commonly used to determine the profitability of a project includes _____ methods.
A. Net present value (NPV).
B. Return on investment (ROI).
C. Discounted cash flow (DCF)
D. Payout time and risk sensitivity analysis.
E. All of the above.
ANS: E
45. Which of the following are part of the purchasing cycle:
A. define need
B. prepare and issue purchase order
C. inspect incoming goods
D. All of the above.
E. A and B only
ANS: E
46. Which of the following is closest to Juran's definition of Quality:
A. conformance to requirements.
B. fitness for use.
C. continuous improvement.
D. customer focus.
E. All of the above.
ANS: B
47. A project element which lies between two events is called:
A. An activity.
B. A critical path method.
C. A slack milestone.
D. A timing slot.
E. A calendar completion point.
ANS: A
48. Employee unions would most likely satisfy which level in Maslow's hierarchy of needs?
A. Belonging
B. Self-actualization
C. Esteem
D. Safety
E. Empowerment
ANS: A
49. Management calls a meeting to explain to all employees the new benefits package for the rank and file. This is an example of:
A. Upward communication
B. Downward communication
C. One-way communication
D. Two-way communication
E. None of the above.
ANS: C
50. Project management/project planning is most closely aligned with:
A. Long range/strategic planning (5 years or more).
B. Intermediate range planning (1 to 5 years)
C. Short range/tactical planning (1 year or less).
D. All of the above.
E. B and C.
ANS: E
51. The profitability and technical data studies are provided in report format to owners and funders for acceptance. This type of report, used to
solicit funding, is referred to as a(n) _____.
A. Project feasibility study.
B. Economic evaluation analysis.
C. Risk management manual.
D. Prospectus.
E. None of the above
ANS: D
52. Which of the following constitute Juran's "quality trilogy":
A. planning, inspection, control.
B. planning, improvement, control.
C. planning, organization, control.
D. product, price, customer.
E. design, build, deliver.
ANS: B
53. Which of the following is most closely associated with business risk:
A. profit and loss
B. personnel turnover
C. workmen's compensation
D. liability insurance
E. All of the above.
ANS: A
54. Which of the following types of contracts is equivalent to a cost plus contract:
A. Fixed firm price
B. Cost reimbursable
C. Fixed price plus incentive fee
D. progress payments
E. All of the above.
ANS: B
55. A project manager recently rewarded an individual with a promotion that carried with it a very small salary increase but substantially more
responsibility. The project manager appears to be appealing to the employee's _____ need.
A. Monetary
B. Physiological
C. Esteem
D. Self-actualization
E. Team-building
ANS: C
56. Most project (and non-project) managers prefer _____ communications.
A. Oral
B. Written
C. Upward
D. Downward
E. Lateral
ANS: A
57. On a precedence diagram, the arrow between two boxes is called:
A. An activity.
B. A constraint.
C. An event.
D. The critical path.
E. None of above.
ANS: B
58. Quality control charts show a characteristic of the product or service against:
A. the specification limits.
B. customer requirements.
C. control limits based on three standard deviations in each direction.
D. control limits based on six standard deviations in each direction.
E. A and D only
ANS: C
59. The identification, definition, and selection of the project objectives as well as the best approach to achieving the project objectives are
indentified in the _____ phase of the project but first documented in the project _____.
A. Conceptual, charter/baseline.
B. Conceptual, master schedule.
C. Development, charter/baseline.
D. Development, master schedule.
E. Development, masterplan.
ANS: A
60. The work breakdown structure, the work packages, and the company's accounting system are tied together through the:
A. Code of accounts.
B. Overhead rates.
C. Budgeting system.
D. Capital budgeting process.
E. All of the above.
ANS: A
61. Which of the following is an element of procurement management:
A. inspection
B. purchasing
C. estimating
D. expediting
E. A, B and D only
ANS: E
62. Which of the following is most closely associated with pure risk:
A. profit and loss
B. personnel turnover
C. insurance
D. market fluctuations
E. A and D only
ANS: C
63. Assignable cause or special variation is:
A. is indicated when a point falls outside the control limits.
B. is indicated when a point falls outside the specification limits.
C. is indicated when a run of seven or more points fall above the center line of a standard control chart.
D. is indicated when a run of seven or more points fall below the center line of a standard control chart.
E. A, C, and D.
ANS: E
64. In the arrow diagramming method (ADM), _____ do not consume time or resources.
A. Events.
B. Activities
C. Slack elements.
D. B and C only.
E. All of the above.
ANS: A
65. Management reserve is generally intended to be used to:
A. implement additional unbudgeted scope
B. compensate for inaccurate estimates
C. cover major unforeseen catastrophes
D. cover unforeseen problems in the project
E. All of the above.
ANS: D
66. Project management has been proven to be successful because employees get to see the entire effort, from beginning to end, rather than just
small pieces. This could be considered an example of:
A. Behavioral modification
B. Linking performance to pay
C. Positive job reinforcement
D. Job enrichment
E. All of the above
ANS: D
67. Project managers that are available to answer questions, provide guidance when need, and generally do not interfere with day-to-day activities
have a(n) ______ managerial style.
A. Autocratic
B. Conciliatory
C. Ethical
D. Facilitative
E. Judicial
ANS: D
68. The scope baseline once established and approved, is used:
A. as the basis for making future decisions.
B. to accomplish verification measures.
C. to evaluate potential changes.
D. All of the above.
E. A and C only.
ANS: D
69. The three most common types of project cost estimates are:
A. Order of magnitude, parametric, and budget.
B. Parametric, definitive and top down.
C. Order of magnitude, definitive and bottom up.
D. Order of magnitude, budget and definitive.
E. Analogy, parametric and top down.
ANS: D
70. To calculate the expected value of an outcome:
A. divide the value of each outcome by its probability, then add the results.
B. divide the value of the desired outcome by the value all possible outcomes
C. multiply the value of each outcome by its probability, then add the results
D. use linear regression to assess the expected value of the outcome
E. B and D only
ANS: C
71. Activities with zero time duration are referred to as:
A. Critical path activites.
B. Noncritical path activities.
C. Slack time activities.
D. Dummies
E. None of above.
ANS: D
72. For a given characteristic in a construction process, the standard deviation associated with production variation is 0.8", and the standard
deviation associated with measurement variation is 0.6". The total standard deviation for this characteristic is:
A. 1.4"
B. 1.2".
C. 1.0"
D. 0.8"
E. 0.2"
ANS: C
73. Project cash reserves are often used for adjustment in escalation factors which may be beyond the control of the project manager. Other than
possibly financing (interest) costs and taxes, the three most common escalation factors involve changes in:
A. Overhead rates, labor rates and material costs.
B. Overhead rates, schedule slippages, and rework.
C. Rework, cost-of-living adjustments, and overtime.
D. Material costs, shipping cost, and scope changes.
E. Labor rates, material costs, and cost reporting.
ANS: A
74. Selective perception is _____ of new conflicting information that may result, in a breakdown in communication.
A. Encoding
B. Blocking out
C. Transmission
D. Acceptance
E. Decoding
ANS: B
75. The work breakdown structure (WBS) is an excellent tool for objective control and evaluation. Which of the following is generally NOT
validated through the WBS?
A. Time, schedule and cost.
B. Management coordination and organization structuring.
C. Work methods and accountability.
D. Quality of work.
E. Risk and impact decision-making.
ANS: D
76. When working in an environment that uses learning curves, the most effective plan for creating the perception that pay is related to
performance is to provide the team members with an individual salary plus bonus based upon
A. Individual productivity
B. Cost effectiveness
C. Group or team productivity
D. Rating system developed by the project manager
E. All of the above
ANS: A
77. Which of the following is not part of the acquisition process:
A. source selection
B. invitation to bid
C. contract award
D. notice to proceed
E. All of the above are parts of the acquisition process.
ANS: D
78. An individual who is working on the satisfaction of physiological needs has essentially satisfied which needs?
A. Safety
B. Empowerment/authority
C. Esteem
D. Self-actualization
E. None of the above
ANS: E
79. In the PDM, common constraints include:
A. Start-to-start
B. Finish-to-start
C. Finish-to-finish
D. B and C only
E. A, B, and C.
ANS: E
80. Scope reporting is the timely determination, _____, and _____ of project progress, status data, and transforming this into structured
documentation (reports) necessary to judge project performance (reporting on work packages).
A. Recording, accumulation.
B. Recording, graphical display.
C. Accumulation, graphical display.
D. Graphical display, interpretation.
E. Interpretation, analysis.
ANS: A
81. There are two major types of reserves used on projects. The _____ is for (usually major) scope changes that were not considered as part of
the original plan, whereas the _____ is to compensate for minor changes in estimating, escalation factors.
A. Management reserve, unplanned allowance fund.
B. Management reserve, contingency.
C. Contingency fund, management reserve.
D. Unplanned allowance fund, budgetary reserve.
E. Unplanned reserve, planned reserve.
ANS: C
82. To determine what causes the majority of quality problems in a process, a very useful tool is the:
A. cause and effect diagrams.
B. flow chart.
C. control chart.
D. pareto chart.
E. trend chart.
ANS: D
83. Which of the following is not part of contract administration
A. contract award
B. performance control
C. financial control
D. contract closeout
E. All of the above are parts of contract administration.
ANS: A
84. A(n) _____ system is designed to ensure the timely availability of nonhuman resources, and includes the cost in procurement, shipping/freight,
storage and loss.
A. Inventory control.
B. Materials management.
C. Procurement.
D. All of the above.
E. A and C only.
ANS: B
85. Expectancy theory as applied to project management implies that:
A. The team will work the hardest on those goals that are clearly explained by the project manager
B. The more rewards that the project manager provides, the better the performance of the team
C. Team members will work hardest for those project goals that also bring satisfaction to personal goals
D. Employees will work hardest for those project goals which are accompanied by high levels of authority for the individual team members
E. None of the above
ANS: C
86. Non-verbal communication includes:
A. Body movement
B. Gestures
C. Facial expressions
D. The way we move our hands
E. All of the above
ANS: E
87. The formal invitation to submit a price for specified goods/services is usually referred to as:
A. request for proposal
B. request for quotation
C. tender invitation
D. bid invitation
E. A and B only
ANS: B
88. The project scope/charter baseline includes:
A. Summary of background conditions defining the project.
B. Organization, authority and responsibility relationships.
C. Functions to be performed.
D. Resource requirement schedule including time estimates.
E. All of the above.
ANS: E
89. Which of the following is not an input to quality planning?
A. scope statement.
B. regulations.
C. work results.
D. standards.
E. quality policy.
ANS: C
90. Which of the following networking methods allows us to show that the last 10% of one element cannot be completed until 62% of a previous
element has been completed?
A. PERT
B. ADM
C. PDM
D. All of the above.
E. A and C only.
ANS: C
91. Which of the following utility functions reflects risk-aversion:
A. uniform
B. increasing
C. decreasing
D. exponential
E. B and D only
ANS: C
92. A deficiency in characteristics that render the quality of the material/service unacceptable is usually referred to as:
A. defective
B. defect
C. non-conformance
D. poor workmanship
E. lack of fitness for use
ANS: C
93. A line manager possesses information which the project team needs, but withholds the information. The results in a(n):
A. Blindspot
B. Facade
C. region of influence
D. Communication power base
E. None of the above
ANS: B
94. A project can best be defined as:
A. Series of non-related activities designed to accomplish single and multiple objectives.
B. Coordinated effort of related activities designed to accomplish a goal without a well-established end point.
C. Cradle-to-grave activities which must be accomplished in less than one year and consumes human and non-human resources.
D. Any undertaking with a definable time frame, well-defined objectives, and consumes both human and non-human resources with certain
constraints.
E. All of the above.
ANS: D
95. Guidelines for estimating time durations include:
A. Assuming a normal level of labor and equipment.
B. Assuming a normal work week.
C. Using consistent time units
D. Using past actual durations as guides.
E. All or part of each of the above.
ANS: E
96. Herzberg identified factors which, if present, will lead to increased motivation. A typical factor would be:
A. Good supervision
B. Job security
C. Regular promotions
D. Good salary
E. A dental plan
ANS: C
97. Statistical cost estimating techniques (based upon history), are called _____ estimates and are a _____ approach.
A. Definitive, bottom up.
B. Analogy, top down.
C. Parametric, bottom up.
D. Parametric, top down.
E. Analogy, bottom up.
ANS: D
98. Which quality management tool would be used to determine potential causes of a production problem?
A. control chart.
B. Ishikawa diagram.
C. scatter diagram.
D. histogram.
E. run chart.
ANS: B
99. Affinity diagrams are used to:
A. determine if a process is in control.
B. determine root cause.
C. show the relationship among variables.
D. categorize large amounts of data.
E. None of the above.
ANS: D
100. One of your project team members has made a technological breakthrough on an R & D project. The result will be new business for the
company, as well as a company patent. The team member received a company bonus. The motivational strategy used here is:
A. Job enrichment
B. Linking pay and performance
C. Behavior modification
D. Freedom in the work place
E. All of the above
ANS: B
101. Smoothing out resource requirements from period to period is called resource _____.
A. Allocation.
B. Partitioning
C. Leveling.
D. Quantification
E. None of above.
ANS: C
102. The most precise or accurate estimate for determining project costs is the _____ estimate.
A. Definitive.
B. Analogy
C. Budget
D. Modified standards.
E. Rule of thumb.
ANS: A
103. When subordinates know pertinent information that is not known by the project manager, the result is:
A. Blindspot
B. Facade
C. region of influence
D. Communication power base
E. None of the above
ANS: A
104. Which of the following scheduling methods uses more of the risk management concepts:
A. ADM
B. PDM
C. CPM
D. PERT
E. Gantt
ANS: D
105. Which of the following terms refers to the situation where the work is being used for the purpose intended and so certified:
A. beneficial completion
B. substantial completion
C. project completion
D. contract closeout
E. final completion
ANS: B
106. A _____ estimate prepared from layouts, sketches and flowsheets, should be accurate within (-10, +25%).
A. Parametric
B. Definitive.
C. Budget
D. Bottom up.
E. Top down.
ANS: C
107. Assigning resources in an attempt to find the shortest project schedule consistent with fixed resource limits is called resource _____.
A. Allocation.
B. Partitioning
C. Leveling
D. Quantification.
E. None of above.
ANS: A
108. For communication to occur, there must be:
A. Two or more people involved
B. the transmittal of information
C. a communication process
D. All of the above
E. B and C only
ANS: D
109. The ability to get an individual or group to perform a given task is best described as:
A. Authority
B. Power
C. Influence
D. Leadership
E. Coerciveness
ANS: B
110. The comprehensive review of a contractor's technical performance, cost performance, and delivery schedule, is referred to as:
A. post project evaluation
B. post contract evaluation
C. post mortem
D. procurement performance evaluation
E. contractor's performance evaluation
ANS: E
111. The financial closeout of a project dictates that:
A. All project funds have been spent.
B. No charge numbers have been overrun.
C. No follow-on work from this client is possible.
D. No further charges can be made against the project.
E. All of the above.
ANS: D
112. Two sources of variation in the length of hex bolts exist. Production variation and measurement error. The QC manager knows that the
standard deviation from these sources is 0.24" and 0.43" , respectively. What is the total standard deviation.
A. .10 inch.
B. .19 inch.
C. .34 inch.
D. .49 inch.
E. .67 inch.
ANS: D
113. Which of the following activities can be considered as part of risk mitigation
A. risk identification
B. purchasing insurance
C. assessment of outcomes
D. assessment of probabilities
E. C and D only
ANS: B
114. In general, attempts to smooth out period to period resources will _____ the scheduled time and _____ project costs.
A. Increase, decrease.
B. Increase, increase
C. Increase, increase or decrease.
D. Decrease, decrease.
E. Decrease, increase.
ANS: B
115. Risk management methodology should be adhered to in:
A. construction projects
B. system projects
C. complex projects
D. large projects
E. All of the above.
ANS: E
116. The most common form of written project communication is
A. Publications
B. Bulletin boards
C. Reports
D. Letters and memos
E. All of the above
ANS: D
117. The most difficult decision for the executive sponsors to make at the end-of-phase review meeting is:
A. Budget allocations for the next phase.
B. Authorizing scope changes for the next phase.
C. Authorizing budget increases for the next phase based upon scope changes.
D. Canceling the project.
E. All of the above.
ANS: D
118. The most expensive phase of life cycle costing is:
A. R & D.
B. Applied research.
C. Production
D. Operations and support.
E. Termination.
ANS: D
119. The rule of seven used by quality control engineers states that if a run of seven or more samples lays on one side of the process mean, then
the process is out of control. What is the probability that this condition is the result of random variations.
A. 0.143
B. 0.0312
C. 0.0273
D. 0.0156
E. 0.0078
ANS: D
120. The term that best describes the 'right' to manipulate or change others is called?
A. Authority
B. Power
C. Leadership
D. Coerciveness
E. Project charter
ANS: A
121. Which of the following is associated with a buyer's request for material to meet a particular need:
A. material warranty
B. material guarantees
C. implied warranty of salability
D. implied warranty of fitness for a particular purpose
E. A and C only
ANS: D
122. A project manager trying to communicate accurately to the team should use:
A. the language of the team members
B. the language of the project manager
C. non-verbal methods
D. written memos
E. All of the above.
ANS: A
123. An advertiser who uses a movie or sports star to endorse a product is trying to use power.
A. Expert
B. Legitimate
C. Reward
D. Influential
E. Referent
ANS: E
124. Control chart theory is based on the differentiation of the causes of variations in quality. Variations may be produced by assignable causes.
All of the following are examples of assignable causes except:
A. differences among machines.
B. differences among workers.
C. differences among materials.
D. differences in each of these factors over time.
E. None of the above (all are examples)
ANS: E
125. Giving a part of project work to a contractor is an example of:
A. risk mitigation
B. risk assignment
C. risk delegation
D. risk deflection
E. risk assumption
ANS: D
126. Proper implementation of project management will guarantee that:
A. Budgets will be met.
B. Schedules will be adhered to.
C. Quality/performance will be met.
D. The project will be a success.
E. None of the above.
ANS: E
127. The most effective means of determining the cost of a project is to price out the _____.
A. Work breakdown structure.
B. Linear responsibility chart.
C. Project charter.
D. Scope statement.
E. Management plan.
ANS: A
128. Which method shown below is acceptable for reducing cost or shortening the schedule?
A. "Crashing"
B. Changing scope.
C. Performing activities in parallel rather than in series.
D. All of the above.
E. A and C only.
ANS: D
129. Which of the following terms is used to describe the receipt issued by a carrier for items to be delivered to a third party:
A. free on board
B. receipt for merchandise
C. packaging list
D. loading list
E. bill of lading
ANS: E
130. A computer tape which contains historical project information is called ____ tape.
A. Database
B. Baseline.
C. Archive.
D. Lessons learned.
E. Life cycle summary.
ANS: C
131. According to Herzberg, which of the following is a motivational factor?
A. Pay
B. Hygiene needs
C. Achievement
D. Working conditions
E. Vacation time
ANS: C
132. Communication in both project and non-project-driven organizations should occur in directions.
A. one
B. two
C. three
D. four
E. five
ANS: E
133. During project execution, a line manager informs you that he will not have sufficient resources available next month to support your and two
other projects. The best way to handle this problem would be to:
A. Ask the line manager to make the decision.
B. Ask the line manager to work with senior management to prioritize the work.
C. Ask your sponsor to meet with the line manager.
D. Ask the line manager to set up a meeting with you and the other project managers to work out the problem yourselves.
E. Prepare a purchase order to outsource the work.
ANS: D
134. Japanese quality control has improved dramatically in the last 30 years for all of the following reasons except:
A. the use of quality circles.
B. small, continuous improvements in quality control.
C. the use of worker suggestion systems.
D. the use of quality control charts.
E. focusing quality control efforts on production outputs.
ANS: E
135. Management reserves are normally defined as a % of the total budget. As a project progresses, the project manager wants the $ value of
management reserve to _____, whereas the customer wants the management reserve to _____.
A. Increase, increase.
B. Increase, decrease.
C. Decrease, decrease.
D. Decrease, increase.
E. Remain the same, return to customer.
ANS: E
136. The utility of a risk seeker is:
A. negatively exponential
B. positively skewed
C. increasing
D. decreasing
E. symmetrical
ANS: C
137. Which of the following is equivalent to a lump sum contract:
A. fixed price contract
B. price fixing contract
C. purchase order
D. All of the above.
E. B and C only
ANS: A
138. Back charges refers to:
A. transferring charges from sub-contractors to the owner
B. adjusting payments to reflect late invoices consequence
C. the cost of corrective action taken by the owner and charged to the contractor for non-conformance
D. gaining restitution from the owner for non payment
E. C and D only
ANS: C
139. Company expenses such as auditing costs, supervision, office supplies, building rent and maintenance are elements of the:
A. Capital budgeting process.
B. Overhead rates.
C. Contracts and administration costing system.
D. Fringe benefits packages.
E. None of the above.
ANS: B
140. Job continuity would be an example of _____ in Maslow's hierarchy of needs.
A. Self-actualization
B. Esteem
C. Physiological
D. Belonging
E. Safety
ANS: E
141. Overlapping activities on a project, such as design and construction, is referred to as:
A. Fast tracking
B. Risk conversion.
C. Parallel management.
D. Process improvement.
E. Synchronous manufacturing
ANS: A
142. The major reason why a project manager would use written instead of oral communication is:
A. documentation
B. feedback
C. cost
D. barrier elimination
E. All of the above.
ANS: A
143. The scope management provides:
A. A basis for future decisions about the project.
B. A baseline to accomplish verification measures.
C. A baseline to evaluate potential scope changes.
D. All of the above.
E. B and C only.
ANS: D
144. Total project risk can be defined as:
A. the sum of the probabilities of project risks events times the sum of consequences of those risks
B. the sum of the products of each project risk event times its consequences
C. the sum of the consequences of all project risk events
D. the sum of the probabilities of all project risk events
E. 1 - the sum of the probabilities of all project risk events.
ANS: B
145. Which of the following statements about the cost of quality are true?
A. the cost of quality is the expense of nonconformance to requirements and specifications.
B. the cost of quality are mostly the direct responsibility of workers who are manufacturing the product.
C. quality control programs should be implemented when the cost of quality are deemed affordable by management.
D. A and B.
E. A and C
ANS: A
146. A line manager who is asked to wear two hats and function as a project manager at the same time is likely to exercise:
A. Authority
B. Power
C. Influence
D. All of the above]
E. A and B only
ANS: D
147. Including the customer in the process of project planning is:
A. Slow and counterproductive.
B. Essential in the definition and documentation of project goals.
C. Necessary, but of limited value.
D. Unnecessary because project goals are defined in the proposal stage.
E. None of the above.
ANS: B
148. It is argumentative whether project managers actually control costs. Which of the following is the most common element over which the
project manager may have some degree of control?
A. Direct labor dollars
B. Direct labor hours.
C. Overhead rates.
D. Procurement costs.
E. None of the above.
ANS: B
149. Most quality problems:
A. originate in the quality department where the ultimate responsibility for quality rests.
B. originate on the shop floor because of waste and product rework.
C. are the results of management inattention to potential quality improvement ideas.
D. could be eliminated if shop supervisors monitored their work more closely.
E. A and B
ANS: C
150. The "buy or make" decision is usually made during the:
A. acquisition cycle
B. contract evaluation cycle
C. requirements cycle
D. pre-award cycle
E. at any time that is convenient for the project manager
ANS: C
151. The logical relationship that communicates a delay between the start/finish of one activity and the start/finish of another activity is referred to
as:
A. Slack
B. Free float.
C. Restricted float.
D. Level float.
E. Lag
ANS: E
152. Which of the following actions is an example of risk response:
A. adjust project parameters (scope, time, quality ...)
B. reduce the probability of potential project risk events
C. reduce the consequences of potential project risk events
D. wait until a problem actually happens, then deal with it in the most effective and efficient manner.
E. A, B and C only
ANS: E
153. A comparison of completion status to baseline is referred to as _____.
A. Earned value measurement.
B. Percent complete.
C. ACWP.
D. BCWS
E. None of above.
ANS: A
154. An example of coercive power would be:
A. Demotion
B. Reduction in wages
C. Disciplinary layoff
D. Reprimand
E. All of the above
ANS: E
155. Job deｓcriptions are examples of ______communications.
A. upward
B. downward
C. horizontal
D. diagonal
E. None of the above
ANS: E
156. Monte Carlo simulation:
A. Was originally developed by Dr. Carlo
B. Is a European technique for assessing project risks
C. assumes the future risk events will occur at random according to predetermined probability distributions
D. is a technique to stimulate create risk event resolution
E. A, B and C only
ANS: C
157. The Pareto Principle is a technique used to determine which quality control problems in a particular process should be corrected. Which of
the following statements best represents the philosophy employed by this principle?
A. In order to minimize financial losses from quality control problems, all problems which have a measureable cost should be corrected
B. the majority of defects are caused by a small percentage of the identifiable problems. Improvement efforts should be reserved for these vital
problems.
C. in order to achieve zero defects, all quality control problems, including those which do not have a direct financial cost should be corrected.
D. generally, 80% of the quality control problems are justifiable for correction via cost-benefit analysis. The remaining 20% are not financially
worthy of improvement efforts.
E. A and D
ANS: B
158. The WBS is:
A. An organization oriented family tree of the project.
B. A task oriented family tree of the project.
C. A cost centered structure of the project.
D. Only required on large complex projects where separately identifiable work packages are difficult to construct.
E. None of the above.
ANS: B
159. Which of the following processes allow an unsuccessful bidder to seek remedy for contract award to another bidder.
A. bid protest
B. bid review
C. award Protest
D. award review
E. any of the above processes can be used
ANS: A
160. A project team member submits a suggestion on how to improve the corporate procurement process. This is an example of _____
communication
A. upward
B. downward
C. horizontal
D. diagonal
E. None of the above.
ANS: A
161. Financial compensation is the primary motivational tool for which of the following management theories of programs.
A. Zero-defects program.
B. theory X management.
C. theory Y management.
D. Quality control circles.
E. A and C
ANS: B
162. In which of the following contract types is it easier to change the scope of the contract:
A. firm fixed price
B. fixed price plus incentive fee
C. cost plus percentage of cost
D. letter contract
E. None of the above.
ANS: C
163. Planning activities such that predetermined resource availability pools are not exceeded is called:
A. Resource leveling.
B. Manpower leveling.
C. Resource limited planning.
D. Manpower planning.
E. Manpower contingency planning.
ANS: C
164. The project charter:
A. Expresses upper management commitment to the project.
B. Provides that authority by which the project will be run.
C. Establishes that organizational structure with the project.
D. Specifies overall objectives and timeframe of the project.
E. All of the above.
ANS: E
165. Which of the following areas are addressed in risk identification:
A. environmental
B. technical
C. legal
D. All of the above.
E. A and B only
ANS: D
166. Which of the following types of power comes through the organizational hierarchy
A. Coercive
B. Reward
C. Referent
D. Legitimate
E. Expert
ANS: D
167. A calendar that identifies when a project may be performed on an activity is called a:
A. Project calendar.
B. Resource calendar.
C. Milestone point.
D. Key point.
E. Work unit.
ANS: A
168. Charisma would be an example of _____ power.
A. Legitimate
B. Reward
C. Coercive
D. Expert
E. Referent
ANS: E
169. For every situation, several methods usually exist for effective communication to take place. Which of the following is least likely to be used
for explaining to the team project planning guidelines?
A. project office memo
B. project office directive
C. project team meeting
D. formal report
E. counseling sessions
ANS: D
170. In the project environment, the individual ultimately responsible for quality control is:
A. The line workers who must strive "to do things right the first time" to avoid quality problems.
B. the company's quality control manager who must work with the project members to ensure the quality control program is effective.
C. The head of the production department who retains ultimate quality control responsibility for all the company's projects.
D. The project manager who has ultimate responsibility for the entire project.
E. the customer who must ensure that he is receiving a quality product from the vendor.
ANS: D
171. In which of the following types of contracts is it most important for the contractor to maintain control of cost, schedule and scope changes.
A. unit price
B. cost plus incentive fee
C. cost plus fixed fee
D. firm fixed price
E. B and D only
ANS: D
172. Middle (functional) managers have the greatest influence in the direction of the project in which type of organizational structure?
A. Project.
B. Strong matrix.
C. Weak matrix.
D. Project coordinator.
E. Project expeditor.
ANS: C
173. Which of the following risks are generally considered unpredictable:
A. business risk
B. financial risk
C. inflation
D. natural hazards
E. taxes
ANS: C
174. A clear definition of the user's needs serves as the direct basis for the:
A. Work breakdown structure.
B. Functional requirements.
C. Project cost estimate.
D. Selection of personnel.
E. Termination decision.
ANS: B
175. R & D project managers in high-tech companies most often motivate using _____ power.
A. Expert
B. Reward
C. Referent
D. Identification
E. None of the above
ANS: A
176. The major difference between PERT and CPM networks is:
A. PERT requires three time estimates whereas CPM requires one time estimate.
B. PERT is used for construction projects whereas CPM is used for R & D.
C. PERT addresses only time whereas CPM also includes cost and resource availability.
D. PERT requires computer solutions whereas CPM is a manual technique.
E. PERT is measured in days whereas CPM uses weeks or months.
ANS: A
177. The majority of product defects could be prevented in most processes if manufactures would do the following:
A. Increase the use of acceptance control charts instead of standard three-sigma control charts.
B. Make a concerted effort to eliminate the potential for product defects in the design stage.
C. Create a quality control department.
D. A and B.
E. A and C
ANS: B
178. Which of the following diagrams is most useful in impact analysis:
A. arrow diagrams
B. precedence diagrams
C. decision trees
D. Pareto diagrams
E. cause and effects diagrams
ANS: C
179. Which of the following is least likely to be used in explaining to a team member why you consider his/her performance substandard?
A. Project office memo
B. counseling session
C. project team meeting
D. formal letter
E. individual conversation
ANS: C
180. Which of the following types of contracts allows the owner to transfer risk to the contractor:
A. cost plus incentive fee
B. cost sharing
C. firm fixed price
D. cost plus fixed fee
E. performance guarantees
ANS: C
181. A contractor estimates that a project has a 0.5 probability of $200,000 profit and 0.3 probability of $50,000 loss. The expected monetary value
of this project is:
A. 200000
B. 150000
C. 85000
D. 50000
E. None of the above.
ANS: C
182. A project manager who allows the team to make the majority of the decisions is demonstrating a(n) ____ leadership style.
A. Laissez-faire
B. Boss-centered
C. Subordinate centered
D. Autocratic
E. Demographic
ANS: C
183. Historical records during close-out are useful to _____ and _____ for future projects.
A. Predict trends, highlight problems.
B. Analyze successes, shortfalls.
C. Analyze strengths, document results.
D. Support litigation, defend claims.
E. Justify results, set standards.
ANS: A
184. In a fishbone diagram, the effect you are concerned about is placed:
A. at the right-hand end of the spine.
B. at the end of the diagonal line (i.e. "fin").
C. on a branch of a fin.
D. at the left-hand end of the spine.
E. None of the above.
ANS: A
185. Sound, prudent, but often unsophisticated judgement is called:
A. common sense
B. rational management
C. smoothing
D. confrontation
E. None of the above
ANS: A
186. Which of the following types of specifications gives measurable capabilities of the product:
A. functional specifications
B. performance specifications
C. conformance specifications
D. technical specifications
E. process capability specification
ANS: B
187. A graphical display of accumulated costs and labor hours for both budgeted and actual costs, plotted against time, is called a(n) _____.
A. Trend line.
B. Trend analysis.
C. S curve.
D. Percent completion report.
E. Earned value report.
ANS: C
188. By using Project Risk Management techniques, project managers can develop strategies that do all but which of the following:
A. Significantly reduce project risks
B. eliminate project risks
C. provide a rational basis for better decision making
D. identify risks, their impact(s), and any appropriate responses
E. None of the above.
ANS: B
189. In a flowchart, the diamond form is used to represent:
A. a starting point.
B. an operation.
C. a written report.
D. a decision point.
E. an end point.
ANS: D
190. In small companies, project managers and line managers are:
A. Never the same person
B. Always the same person
C. Sometimes the same person
D. Always in disagreement with each other
E. Forced to act as their own sponsors
ANS: C
191. Make or buy decisions are usually made during the _____ phase of a project.
A. Conceptual
B. Development.
C. Implementation
D. Execution
E. Close-out
ANS: B
192. Managers who adopt a sound, but prudent managerial style are called
A. authorization
B. conciliatory
C. ethical
D. judicial
E. promotional
ANS: D
193. The critical path in a network is the path that:
A. Has the greatest degree of risk.
B. Will elongate the project if the activities on this path take longer than anticipated.
C. Must be completed before all other paths.
D. All of the above.
E. A and B only.
ANS: B
194. There are four general classes of products that the purchasing department seeks to obtain for production. Which is not one of these
categories:
A. Raw materials
B. Standard production items
C. Special items
D. Items of small value
E. Semi-precious materials
ANS: E
195. A good team leader must be concerned not only with _____ but also with _____ .
A. Long term goals; short term goals
B. Organizational goals; personal goals
C. Legitimate power; referent power
D. Group efficiency; power and authority
E. Tasks to be accomplished; needs of the team members
ANS: E
196. The project stakeholders should be actively involved with the _____ phase(s) of the life cycle.
A. Conceptual
B. Development.
C. Execution
D. Finish
E. All of the above.
ANS: E
197. The starting point in the development of a top-down PERT/CPM chart is the _____ .
A. Project specification tree.
B. Customer's deliverable list.
C. Customer's milestone dates.
D. Work breakdown structure.
E. Listing of customer team meeting dates.
ANS: D
198. The use of quality circles:
A. has proven ineffective in both Japan and the U.S.
B. is particularly effective in overcoming labor/management conflicts.
C. provides a quick fix for most quality problems.
D. allows workers the opportunity to generate solutions for chronic quality problems.
E. A and B only
ANS: D
199. Which phase of the project life cycle typically has the highest uncertainty and risk associated with it?
A. concept
B. development
C. execution
D. conclusion
E. All of the above.
ANS: A
200. Your sponsor announce to you and your team that his/her door is open to everyone wishing to discuss project problems. Yet, the sponsor
seems to be annoyed whenever someone does stop by, even when discussing a serious problems. This is an example of.
A. semantics
B. credibility
C. inconsistent signals
D. perceptual differences
E. misunderstood role
ANS: C
201. _____ is associated with a buyer's request for materials or equipment to meet a particular need or accomplish a specific purpose.
A. Express warranty
B. Implied warranty of merchantability
C. Implied warranty of fitness for a particular purpose
D. Prescribed warranty
E. None of the above.
ANS: C
202. ADM is an activity-on-arrow method. In this method, a dummy activity:
A. Denotes a critical path relationship.
B. Denotes any dependency relationship.
C. Shows slack.
D. Identifies customer deliverables dates.
E. Identifies customer team meeting dates.
ANS: B
203. An informal communication network on a project and within an organization is called a(n):
A. free upward flow
B. free horizontal flow
C. unrestricted communication flow
D. grapevine
E. open network
ANS: D
204. By which process may an unsuccessful supplier seek remedy for unjust awards?
A. Contract dispute
B. Stop work order
C. Bid protest
D. Coffective action
E. None of the above.
ANS: C
205. Risk classified as unknown unknowns (i.e., those which cannot be identified or evaluated):
A. should be deflected to the contracting officer
B. should be handled via contingency allowances
C. should be ignored, since they cannot be identified
D. should be ignored, since they are not covered in the Project Risk Assessment
E. C and D
ANS: B
206. The "zero defect" concept was proposed by:
A. Deming
B. Juran
C. Crosby
D. Tagushi
E. A and D only
ANS: C
207. The major difference between project and line management is that the project manager may not have any control over which basic
management function?
A. Decision-making
B. Staffing
C. Rewarding
D. Tracking/monitoring
E. Reviewing
ANS: B
208. Which of the following planning considerations is often overlooked?
A. Planning for project termination.
B. Qualified project manager assignment.
C. Insuring top management support.
D. Clearly defined tasks.
E. All of the above.
ANS: A
209. A recurring communication pattern within the project organization or company is called a:
A. free-form matrix
B. structured matrix
C. network
D. rigid channel
E. None of the above.
ANS: C
210. During a project review meeting, you discover that your $250,000 project has a negative schedule variance of $20,000 which equates to 12%
of the work scheduled to this point of time. You can therefore conclude that:
A. The project will be completed late.
B. The critical path has been lengthened.
C. the costs are being overrun.
D. Overtime will be required to maintain the original critical path.
E. None of the above.
ANS: E
211. Once the logic of a network is laid out, the project manager will conduct a forward pass and backward pass through the network. This will
provide information on the _____ and identification of the _____ .
A. Slack for each activity, critical path.
B. Slack for each activity, high risk activities.
C. Manpower shortages, high risk activities.
D. High risk activities, non-critical paths.
E. Manpower availability, contingency plans.
ANS: A
213. Risk can be divided into two basic types; business risk and pure (or insurable risk). Of the following, which one(s) fall(s) under business risk?
A. liability loss
B. direct property loss
C. profit loss
D. personnel-related loss
E. B and C
ANS: C
214. The purpose of project Risk Management is to:
A. Identify those factors that will adversely impact project objectives.
B. Assess the impact of adverse project factors.
C. Assess the probability of adverse project factors.
D. A and C
E. All of the above.
ANS: E
215. Which of the following factors has historically been the greatest contributor to project failure?
A. Planning performed by a planning group.
B. Poor financial estimates.
C. Lack of sufficient management reserve.
D. Lack of management support.
E. Not using an automated tracking tool.
ANS: D
216. Which type of process involves the agency holding discussions with each of the offerors, after receipt of their proposals, in the process of
arriving at an agreement prior to the award of a contract?
A. Sealed bidding
B. Competitive proposals
C. Noncompetitive proposals
D. Formal bid
E. Verbal bid
ANS: B
217. A non-critical path activity is completed in half the time. Then,
A. The critical path is also reduced.
B. The slack in the path containing this activity will increase.
C. The total cost for this activity has decreased.
D. Manpower from this activity can be assigned to other activities.
E. All of the above.
ANS: B
218. An element in the WBS was estimated to require 1 month for completion with 1000 hours of labor and a burdened cost of $50K. The task was
completed in 1000 hours but a burdened cost of $60K. The most likely reason for the increase would be:
A. Higher salaried employees were assigned.
B. Overtime was required.
C. The overhead rate increased.
D. Employee salaries had increased.
E. Any of the above
ANS: E
219. In the past, most project managers have come from _____ fields without proper _____ training or education in skills
A. Technical; accounting/finance
B. Technical; management
C. Technical; psychological
D. Marketing; technology-oriented
E. Business; manufacturing know-how
ANS: B
220. The Risk of NOT meeting project quality objectives:
A. can be minimized through continuous monitoring.
B. considered a long term risk.
C. will be reflected in the "in-service" life of the product or service.
D. B and C
E. All of the above.
ANS: E
221. The main player in project communication is the
A. sponsor
B. project manager
C. functional manager
D. functional team
E. All of the above.
ANS: B
222. The type of contract (payment mechanism) chosen for a project is often a reflection of the degree of risk associated with completing that
project. For a firm fixed price contract, payment for risk _____ .
A. Is accomplished by paying the actual costs to the contractor.
B. Is accomplished by paying the contractor for his costs plus a fixed fee (profit).
C. Is an undisclosed contingency in the contractor's bid.
D. Is accomplished by paying for the budgeted costs of dealing with risks, as predicted in the project risk assessment.
E. B and C
ANS: C
223. Which is not an element of procurement management?
A. Purchasing
B. Expenditure
C. Marketing
D. Inspection
E. B and D
ANS: C
224. Which percent of the total project labor hours are typically expended by the end of the second phase of the project life cycle?
A. 0.05
B. 0.1
C. 0.15
D. 0.25
E. 0.5
ANS: D
225. Bar charts are most appropriate for:
A. Comparing actual to planned performance to each activity.
B. Showing slack time.
C. Showing critical path dependencies.
D. Showing which activities can be rearranged in parallel.
E. All of the above.
ANS: A
226. Formal authority is often referred to as legitimate power. Which two other forms of power are also considered to be legitimate power?
A. Reward and penalty
B. Reward and referent
C. Referent and expert
D. Expert and reward
E. Penalty and referent
ANS: A
227. Power games, withholding information, and hidden agendas are examples of-.
A. noise
B. communication barriers
C. indirect communication
D. mixed messages
E. All of the above
ANS: B
228. Scope management is:
A. a project control function.
B. employs change control.
C. a work authorization process.
D. considers Cost, Quality and Schedule.
E. All of the above.
ANS: E
229. The most common method for pricing out non-burdened labor hours for a three year project would be to:
A. Price out the hours at the actual salary of the people to be assigned.
B. Price out the work using a company-wide average labor rate.
C. Price out the work using a functional group average labor rate.
D. All of the above.
E. A and B only.
ANS: C
230. The principles of risk management should be followed only for:
A. complex projects
B. simple projects
C. large projects
D. A and C
E. All of the above.
ANS: E
231. Utility Theory:
A. considers the risk propensity of the decision makers.
B. is based on proven statistical methods.
C. deals with the usefulness of the end product.
D. is a key element of ISO 9000
E. B and C
ANS: A
232. Which is not part of the purchasing cycle?
A. Defined need
B. Transmit need
C. Inspection
D. Prepare and issue purchase order
E. A and D
ANS: C
233. A network has been developed with resources from six different departments. One of the six departments has just informed you that they can
increase the number of employees from 5 to 8. This will result in:
A. A shortening of the critical path.
B. A shortening of the noncritical path.
C. A decrease in the total cost of the project.
D. An increase in the cost of the project.
E. A through D are possible based upon where the resources are deployed.
ANS: E
234. Conflict management requires problem-solving. Which of the following is often referred to as a problem-solving technique and used
extensively in conflict resolution?
A. Confrontation
B. Compromise
C. Smoothing
D. Forcing
E. Withdrawal
ANS: A
235. Cost Reimbursable contracts are equivalent to:
A. Cost plus contracts
B. Fixed plus contracts
C. Progress payment contracts
D. Back charge contracts
E. None of the above.
ANS: A
236. In project-driven companies, costs are usually billed againest the project based upon:
A. The burdened labor rate of the actual employees who performed the work.
B. The burdened labor rate of the line organization average salary.
C. The burdened labor rate of the company average salary.
D. The burdened labor rate of the average salary of the project team members.
E. None of the above.
ANS: A
237. Project Risk Management is based on which of the following premises:
A. the future is unknown.
B. unknowns can result in risks or opportunities.
C. we cannot control risk events.
D. project risk impact can be measured and controlled
E. All of the above.
ANS: E
238. The project manager that allows and supports group discussions and decision making is called a(n) _____ manager.
A. autocratic
B. consultant autocratic
C. consensus
D. shareholder
E. None of the above.
ANS: C
239. What is the purpose of the Project Plan?
A. To document the Preliminary estimates.
B. To document the Definitive estimates.
C. To document the Budgetary estimates.
D. To document Parametric estimates.
E. To document Order of Magnitude estimates.
ANS: C
240. Management has decided to "crash" a project in order to avoid penalty payments for late deliveries. To crash the project, either overtime or
additional resources should be assigned to:
A. All activities.
B. Only those activities with the longest time durations.
C. Those activities on the critical path begining with the longest time duration activities.
D. Those activities with the greatest degree of risk.
E. None of the above.
ANS: C
241. Of the following, who has the ultimate responsibility for meeting project quality objectives?
A. Project Engineer
B. Project Manager
C. Functional Manager
D. Quality Assurance Manager
E. Project Owner
ANS: B
242. Risk mitigation involves all but which of the following:
A. developing system standards (policies, procedure, responsibility standards)
B. obtaining insurance against loss
C. identification of project risks
D. performing contingent planning
E. developing planning alternatives
ANS: C
243. The cost of corrective action taken by the purchaser and chargeable to the supplier under the terms of the contract is:
A. Payment authorization
B. Bid cost considerations
C. Release payment
D. Back charge
E. None of the above.
ANS: D
244. The sequential steps that define the process for successfully completing a project is:
A. Implementation Plan
B. a life cycle
C. Development Plan
D. a critical path
E. Management Plan
ANS: B
245. Which of the following time robbers end up creating additional work for the project manager and the project office?
A. Failure to delegate
B. Changes without notification or direction
C. Unreasonable time constraints
D. Over directing people
E. All of the above
ANS: E
246. You are giving your team instructions on how to perform a new test which is different from the way that the team had performed it previously.
The best way to verify that the learn understands what you want is to:
A. obtain feedback
B. analyze the team's perceptions barriers
C. uses gestures in presenting the instructions
D. analyze the team's decoding skills
E. analyze the team's encoding skills
ANS: A
247. A common way by which executives provide the project manager with written authority is through:
A. A common job deｓcription for all project managers
B. An appointment letter
C. A project charter
D. All of the above
E. B and C only
ANS: E
248. Surveys have shown that the primary skill needed to be a project manager is communication skill. The typical project manager spends
approximately ______percent of his or her time communicating.
A. 40-50
B. 50-60
C. 60-75
D. 75-90
E. 90-95
ANS: D
249. The Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) is the basis for communicating:
A. Project scope, cost control, schedule, quality
B. Project objectives, dependencies, plan, cost control
C. Project scope, schedule, staffing, cost control
D. Project scope, quality, schedule, dependencies
E. Project budget, schedule, risk factors, work assignments.
ANS: A
250. The quality objectives are approved in the conceptual stage of the project by the:
A. Project Engineer
B. Project Manager
C. Functional Manager
D. Quality Assurance Manager
E. Project Owner
ANS: E
251. Total Project Risk:
A. should not be calculated for small projects
B. is the probability of each project risk event times the sum of the consequences of individual project risk events which could occur during the
project.
C. Is the cumulative sum of the probability of each individual project risk event times the consequences of occurrence of that risk event.
D. A and B
E. A and C
ANS: C
252. _____ is a narrative deｓcription of the work to be accomplished or resource to be supplied.
A. Purchase order
B. Level of effort work
C. Scope of work
D. Contract stipulation
E. None of the above.
ANS: C
253. A line manager provides you with three estimates for his activity in your PERT network. His estimates are 2 weeks optimistically, 4 weeks
most likely, and 12 weeks pessimistically. The expected time which would appear on the chart would be:
A. 4 weeks
B. 5 weeks
C. 6 weeks
D. 7 weeks
E. None of the above.
ANS: B
254. In Project Risk Management, Risk Response may include actions to:
A. reduce the probability of risk events
B. change the scope, budget, schedule or quality specifications of the project
C. reduce the consequences or severity of impacts of a potential risk event
D. A and C
E. All of the above.
ANS: E
255. Researching, organizing and recording pertinent information is called:
A. Alternative analysis
B. Information gathering
C. Configuration management
D. Post project analysis
E. All of the above
ANS: B
256. The budget associated with scope changes that have been approved but not planned for yet, is referred to a(n) _____ budget.
A. Unauditable.
B. Undistributed.
C. Preauthorized.
D. Contingency.
E. In-process.
ANS: B
257. The project manager must be concerned with building a closely knit team. During the project kickoff meeting, the project manager can get a
good start at team building by providing the team with:
A. Proposed salary increases if the project is successful
B. Bonuses for early completion date
C. A promise of future assignments
D. Well-defined project objectives
E. Linear responsibility charts
ANS: D
258. To determine whether or not the employee correctly understands the message, the project manager needs to:
A. reduce the filtering
B. eliminate barriers
C. obtain feedback
D. use more than one medium
E. use all of the above.
ANS: C
259. What is the relative priority of project Cost, Schedule and Quality?
A. 1)Cost - 2)Schedule - 3)Quality
B. 1)Quality - 2)Schedule - 3)Cost
C. 1)Quality - 2)Cost - 3)Schedule
D. 1)Schedule - 2)Quality - 3)Cost
E. All are of equal priority
ANS: E
260. _____ is a method of procurement where a contract results from a bid which may be changed through bargaining.
A. Acquisition
B. Contract negotiation
C. Procurement
D. Purchase negotiation
E. None of the above.
ANS: B
261. A proven effective means to insure quality conformance is to:
A. delegate accountability to subordinates
B. revise quality specifications to match quality measurements
C. train workers in proper quality methods
D. inspect quality into the product
E. make quality a higher priority than cost or schedule
ANS: C
262. Communication management is best described as conducting or supervising
A. the way we listen
B. the way we speak
C. the way we feel
D. the exchange of information
E. perfect documentation activities
ANS: D
263. Good project objectives must be:
A. General rather than specific
B. Established without considering resource bounds
C. Realistic and attainable
D. Overly complex
E. Measurable, intangible and verifiable
ANS: C
264. Increasing resources on the critical path activities may not always shorten the length of the project because:
A. Certain activities are time-dependent rather than resource-dependent (i.e., using three ovens rather than one to bake a cake).
B. Safety, OSHA and EPA may have placed restrictions on the number of people used on certain activities or in the physical location of the
project.
C. The skill level of the added resources might not be appropriate for the activities to be performed.
D. Adding more resources may create additional work and produce inefficiencies (i.e., additional people may need training and supervision.)
E. All of the above.
ANS: E
265. Universal characteristics of effective project managers include such skills as communication, decision-making, planning, ability to identify
problems and:
A. Performing feasibility studies
B. Proposal preparation
C. being close to the customer
D. Maturity
E. None of the above are universal characteristics
ANS: E
266. Which of the following is not a measure of the profitability of a project or program?
A. Return on original investment.
B. Net present value.
C. Depreciation.
D. Discounted cash flow.
E. None of the above
ANS: C
267. _____ is a formal invitation containing a scope of work which seeks a formal response (proposal) describing both methodology and
compensation to form the basis of a contract.
A. Request for proposal
B. Invitation to bid
C. Request for quotation
D. Intention for bid
E. None of the above.
ANS: A
268. By which means is a contractor able to control cost overruns due to changing requirements?
A. Project data review
B. Change order
C. Purchase order amendment
D. Change control
E. None of the above.
ANS: D
269. Douglas McGregor's Theory Y advocates that the average worker:
A. Dislikes work and avoids it whenever possible
B. Must be closely supervised and even threatened with punishment
C. Avoids increased responsibility
D. Wants self-respect
E. None of the above
ANS: D
270. Feasibility studies occur in which life cycle phase (s)?
A. Conceptual
B. Conceptual or Development
C. Execution
D. Preliminary planning
E. any life cycle phase
ANS: A
271. Project managers must know:
A. What kind of message to send
B. to whom to send the message
C. how to translate the message into a language that everyone can understand
D. All of the above
E. A and B only
ANS: D
272. Quality attributes
A. are used to determine how effectively the organization accomplishes its goals
B. can be objective or subjective in nature
C. are specific quality characteristics for which a product is designed, built, and tested.
D. A and B.
E. B and C
ANS: E
273. Risk event probability is defined as:
A. the total number of possible events divided into the expectations or frequency of the risk event
B. the number of times the risk event may occur
C. the fraction of the total project tasks which may be affected by the risk event
D. the total number of possible events divided into the consequences of the risk event.
E. A and B
ANS: A
274. Scheduling systems such as PERT, ADM, and PDM are project management tools to be used by:
A. The project manager and project office personnel.
B. The project team and functional managers.
C. The project sponsor.
D. All of the above.
E. A and B only.
ANS: E
275. The planned cost for the total project at its inception is called the _____.
A. Cost of goods sold.
B. Depreciable value.
C. Budgeted cost.
D. All of the above.
E. B and C only.
ANS: C
276. A process characteristic has a true mean of 150 and a true standard deviation of 20. A sample of 25 items is taken from this process. The
standard error of the estimate is:
A. 0.2
B. 0.8
C. 4
D. 5
E. 7.5
ANS: C
277. Network schedules are prepared during the _____ phase and updated during the _____ phase.
A. Conceptual, execution.
B. Development, implementation.
C. Development, close-out.
D. Implementation, close-out.
E. Planning, finishing.
ANS: B
278. Scope Management:
A. entails managing the project's work content.
B. is a subset of configuration management and as such is performed by CM specialists.
C. is concerned with naming all activities performed, the end products which results and the resources consumed.
D. is not a concern of the project manager.
E. None of the above.
ANS: C
279. The methods and techniques for determining the economic costs, the environmental impact, the economic returns, and the probability for
success are called:
A. Feasibility studies.
B. Bills of materials.
C. Pert charts.
D. Managerial reserves.
E. None of the above
ANS: A
280. The traditional organizational form has the disadvantage of:
A. Complex functional budgeting
B. Poorly established communication channels
C. No single focal point for clients/sponsors
D. Slow reaction capability
E. Inflexible use of manpower
ANS: C
281. Things that distort, distract, or muddle the communication process are called:
A. noise
B. selective filtering
C. selective perception
D. medium problems
E. All of the above.
ANS: A
282. Which is not a consideration in a make or buy decision?
A. Cost factors (least cost alternatives)
B. Competitors' method of sourcing
C. Existence of sufficient administration/technical personnel
D. Political and social factors
E. None of the above.
ANS: B
283. A Work Breakdown Structure:
A. assures all work is identified
B. subdivides the project into manageable segments
C. provides the project sponsor with a time-phase task summary
D. both A and B
E. All of the above.
ANS: D
284. A project manager can exchange information with the project team using which media?
A. tactile
B. audio
C. olfactory
D. visual
E. All of the above.
ANS: E
285. During project execution, the customer authorizes and funds a scope change which requires a major change in the schedule. The baseline
schedule:
A. Now becomes the new schedule, including the changes, and the original baseline is disregarded.
B. Is still the original baseline but annotated to reflect that a change has taken place.
C. Is amended to reflect the scope change, but the original baseline is still maintained for post-project review.
D. Is meaningless since every schedule update changes the baseline (i.e., a rubber baseline.)
E. Is the same since baseline schedules cannot change once the development phase is completed.
ANS: C
286. Sensitivity analysis can be used in risk analysis to:
A. Substitute for uncertainty analysis in risk quantification
B. estimate the level of risk aversion adopted by management
C. estimate the effect of change of one project variable on the overall project
D. A and B
E. All of the above.
ANS: C
287. The Pareto Principle is a technique used by quality managers to determine which quality control problems of a particular service or
manufacturing process should be corrected. Which of the following statements represents the philosophy of the principle?
A. In order to minimize financial losses from quality control problems, all problems which have a measurable cost associated with them should be
corrected.
B. the majority of defects are caused by a small percentage of the identifiable problems. Improvements efforts should be reserved for these vital
few problems.
C. in order to achieve zero defects, all quality control problems, including those which do not have a direct financial cost should be corrected.
D. generally, 80 % of the quality control problems are justifiable for correction via cost-benefit analysis. The remaining 20% are not financially
worthy of improvement efforts.
E. A and D
ANS: B
288. The budgeted cost of the work performed (BCWP) for a task that has just been completed can be calculated by:
A. Multiplying the actual hours worked on the project by the budgeted labor rate.
B. Multiplying the budgeted hours to complete the task by the budgeted labor rate.
C. Dividing the actual hours required to complete the task by the budgeted labor rate.
D. Cannot be determined.
E. None of the above
ANS: B
289. The project manager has, as a prime responsibility, to assure proper integration of activities. In which organizational form does the project
manager probably have the easiest time in integrating work?
A. Matrix
B. Classical
C. Expediter
D. Coordinator
E. Pure project
ANS: E
290. There are four methods of government procurement. Which is not one of these methods?
A. Assistance
B. Sealed bidding
C. Competitive proposals
D. Acquisition
E. Small purchases
ANS: D
291. A scientist is informing techs. about a new product which is starting and the type of work that the lab techs. will be expected to do. The
barriers which could hinder the lab techs. ability to filter the information include all of the following except:
A. language and semantics
B. culture and ethics
C. intelligence and knowledge base
D. reputation, authority, organizational status and position
E. relative location of the lab to the scientist's office
ANS: E
292. Many companies self insure against some risk. Problems which can arise from self-insurance include:
A. failure to reserve funds to handle worst case scenarios (low probability events) resulting in severe financial damage to the company
B. stiff competition from insurance companies
C. confusion of business risks with insurable risks.
D. A and C
E. All of the above.
ANS: D
293. Perhaps the biggest problem facing the project manager during integration activities within a matrix structure is:
A. Coping with employees who report to multiple bosses
B. Too much sponsorship involvement
C. Unclear functional understanding of the technical requirements
D. Escalating project costs
E. All of the above
ANS: A
294. The Japanese Quality Control (QC) Circle movement motivated its participants in many ways. Which of the following represents the most
important motivation for the QC circle participants?
A. improving the performance of the company
B. self-improvement
C. financial incentives
D. recognition among co-workers
E. strengthening of relationships between co-workers
ANS: A
295. The _____ specification delineates specific measurable capabilities or parameters for which a product can be tested as part of the
acceptance procedure.
A. Performance
B. Functional
C. Technical
D. Base Line
E. None of the above.
ANS: A
296. The project life-cycle can be described as:
A. project concept, project planning, project execution, and project close-out.
B. project planning, work authorization, and project reporting.
C. project planning, project control, project definition, WBS development, and project termination.
D. project concept, project execution, and project reporting.
E. All of the above.
ANS: A
297. The salvage value of an asset is:
A. The value of the scrap metal if a new asset were taken to a scrap yard.
B. The value that an asset has on the books after one year of depreciation.
C. The costs that have been sunk into the project to date.
D. The expected cash value at the end of an assets useful life.
E. A and D only.
ANS: D
298. Your team has prepared a CPM schedule for your review. You notice that one node has six inputs (including two dummy activities) and four
outputs (which include one dummy activity). Select the correct statement from the following:
A. This is a valid representation if the logic is correct.
B. This is invalid because a node can have a maximum of one dummy input representation if the logic is correct.
C. This is invalid because nodes cannot have both dummy inputs and dummy outputs.
D. This is a invalid because the number of outputs must equal the number of inputs.
E. This is invalid because a maximum of two inputs and two outputs are allowed using the critical path method.
ANS: A
299. Assume that you have a network where an activity on the critical path can be crashed by two weeks. If the activity is actually crashed by two
weeks, then:
A. The project's schedule will be reduced by 2 weeks.
B. The available slack on the noncritical paths will increase.
C. A new critical path may appear after the crash.
D. All of the above.
E. A and B only.
ANS: C
300. Documented work authorization provide:
A. a means of effective internal coordination of the project's activities.
B. an audit trail of all work authorized from project initiation to completion.
C. a means for communication of work activity between the project manager and the performing activities.
D. All of the above
E. A and B only.
ANS: D
301. Fixed-price and incentive-type contracts place responsibility for performance and financial risks associated with delay or non-performance on
the:
A. Buyer
B. Third party
C. Contractor
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
ANS: C
302. In a contract, the point of total assumption refers to the point where:
A. The customer incurs the total financial responsibility for each additional dollar spent.
B. The contractor incurs the total financial responsiblity for each dollar spent.
C. The schedule and cost variance are zero.
D. The customer will incur no further costs for the work the contractor performs in the completion of the contract.
E. B and D only.
ANS: E
303. In a matrix organizational form, MBO may be difficult to implement:
A. If the functional employees are supervised closely by the line manager rather than the project manager
B. Unless the project manager has an input into the employee's performance review
C. Unless the project and line managers agree on the ultimate objective
D. Unless the project and line managers agree to the duration of the task
E. None of the above are correct answers
ANS: E
304. Quality assurance
A. refers to the prevention of product defects
B. is an auditing function that provides feedback to the project team and client about the quality of output being produced.
C. is the technical process that include the construction of control charts which specify acceptability limits for conforming output.
D. A and B.
E. B and C
ANS: B
305. Which of the following communication media is least accepted by organizations?
A. tactile
B. audio
C. extrasensory
D. visual
E. olfactory
ANS: C
306. Formal written communication is mandated for which of the following?
A. scope changes not part of the original project
B. taking exception to a specification
C. procurement of raw materials
D. All of the above.
E. A and B only
ANS: D
307. In performing an impact analysis, the most effective tool to ensure all risks are identified on large projects is the:
A. Work breakdown structure
B. milestone review and schedule technique
C. cost/schedule control system
D. planning programming budget system
E. program and evaluation review technique
ANS: A
308. In the project environment, the individual ultimately responsible for quality control is:
A. The line workers who must strive "to do things right the first time" to avoid quality problems.
B. the company's quality control manager who must work with the project members to ensure the quality control program is effective.
C. The head of the production department who retains ultimate quality control responsibility for all the company's projects.
D. The project manager who has ultimate responsibility for the entire project.
E. the customer who must ensure that he is receiving a quality product from the vendor.
ANS: D
309. In which organizational form do project managers usually get to know the employees well enough to provide an input into their performance
review?
A. Expediter
B. Coordinator
C. Pure project
D. Matrix
E. Line-staff
ANS: C
310. The critical path in a schedule network is the path that:
A. Takes the longest time to complete
B. Must be done before any other tasks
C. Allows some flexibility in scheduling a start time.
D. Is not affected by schedule slippage
E. All of the above.
ANS: A
311. The use of the project reports:
A. are not necessary on small projects
B. provides a means whereby various levels of authority can judge project performance
C. provides insight into project areas and the effectiveness of the control systems
D. All of the above
E. B and C
ANS: E
312. You must produce 27 widgets. You can only produce 9 widgets per production run. Each production line setup costs $1000. Each widget
consumes $10 worth of material and $5 worth of labor. What is the total fixed cost for producing the widgets.
A. 3000
B. 27000
C. 27270
D. 1335
E. 1000
ANS: E
313. _____ is based on information gathered and analyzed about demand and supply. This forecast provides a prediction of short and long term
prices and the underlying reasons for those trends.
A. Demand forecast
B. Price forecast
C. Supply forecast
D. Production forecast
E. None of the above.
ANS: B
314. A project is defined as:
A. a coordinated undertaking of interrelated activities directed toward a specific goal that has a finite period of performance.
B. a large, complex undertaking with many objectives, multiple sources of funding, and a not discernible end point.
C. an undertaking of interrelated activities directed toward a specific goal that can be accomplished in less than one year.
D. a group of activities headed by a project manager who has cradle-to-grave cycle responsibility for the end product.
E. All of the above.
ANS: A
315. An acceptance control chart has limits that are based on the spec. limits for the product rather than limits which differentiate between random
and assignable causes. Under which of the following circumstances should a QC manager consider this type chart
A. When the engineering tolerance on a dimension greatly exceeds the natural dispersion of the manufacturing process
B. When the number of samples outside the current control chart limits become too costly and cumbersome to investigate.
C. When a process is subject to constant but stable tool wear.
D. A and B.
E. A and C
ANS: E
316. Budgeted contingencies can be detemined by:
A. past experience
B. applying standard allowances
C. detemining the sum total of the most probable variances of the various risk items properly identified.
D. All of the above.
E. None of the above.
ANS: D
317. It is a generally acceptable practice that if one of your clients makes an informal request of you, then you should respond:
A. formally in writing
B. with a memo
C. informally
D. nonverbally
E. All of the above
ANS: C
318. Ouchi's Theory Z relates more to _____ whereas Theory X / Theory Y relates to _____ .
A. Project managers; team members
B. Company management philosophy in treating employees; the average worker
C. Project sponsors; project managers
D. The functional team; project sponsors
E. Recruitment policy; wage and salary administration
ANS: B
319. The first step in building a PERT/CPM network is to:
A. Create a flow chart
B. Determine the critical path
C. Show task relationships
D. Create a work breakdown structure
E. None of the above.
ANS: D
320. Which is not one of the five classifications of work found in a purchasing operafion?
A. Management
B. Buying
C. Follow-up and expediting
D. Marketing
E. Clerical
ANS: D
321. You must produce 27 widgets. You can only produce 9 widgets per production run. Each production line setup costs $1000. Each widget
consumes $10 worth of material and $5 worth of labor. What is total variable cost for producing one widget.
A. 1020
B. 1010
C. 1015
D. 20
E. None of the above
ANS: E
322. Creation of project objectives:
A. allows for data collection and analysis and progress reporting against which standards of performance can be measured.
B. is accomplished by selection of measurable variables against which performance can be judged.
C. is required before funding of the project by the project sponsor.
D. all of the above.
E. A and B only
ANS: E
323. During which phase of the project life cycle is the amount at stake lowest?
A. concept
B. development
C. execution
D. conclusion
E. C and D
ANS: A
324. Techniques that can improve communication include:
A. establishing a single, one-way communications channel
B. avoiding face-to-face communication
C. using redundancy (i.e. saying it two different ways) whenever possible
D. disregarding the sensitivity of your receiver
E. All of the above.
ANS: C
325. The Delphi Method is well-suited for:
A. Decision-making
B. Forecasting
C. Overhead rate estimating
D. All of the above
E. A and B only
ANS: E
326. The zero defects concept
A. is a performance standard for management
B. is a motivational technique that promotes "doing it right the first time".
C. is used by management to communicate to all employees that everyone should do things right the first time.
D. A and C.
E. B and C
ANS: D
327. What tool have project managers come to use to identify all of the costs associated with a project.
A. A bill of materials
B. A Gantt chart
C. An arrow diagram network.
D. A work breakdown structure.
E. B and C only.
ANS: D
328. _____ is a receipt issued by a carrier for merchandise to be delivered to a party at some destination.
A. Proforma invoice
B. Inspection certificate
C. Packing list
D. Bill of lading
E. None of the above.
ANS: D
329. A program is characterized as:
A. a grouping or related tasks lasting one year or less.
B. a unique undertaking having a definite time period.
C. a grouping of similar projects having no definite end that supports the product(s) from cradle to grave.
D. a project with a cost over $1 million.
E. None of the above.
ANS: C
330. Contingency planning should include all but which of the following?
A. The development of a contingency allowance determined by combining (layering) various estimate segments to form larger estimate segments.
B. the development of schedule alternatives and work-around
C. the management of a contingency budget
D. an assessment of project shut-down liabilities.
E. A and C
ANS: A
331. From an operating or functional perspective, there are various objectives of purchasing and materials management. Which is not one of these
objectives?
A. To buy competitively
B. To support company operations with an uninterrupted flow of materials and services
C. To develop reliable and effective sources of supply
D. To achieve maximum integration with the other departments of the firm
E. To attain approval from each department of every purchase
ANS: E
332. In order to achieve long-term quality improvements, management must do the following:
A. Motivate the employees with seminars, contests, and institute programs such as "Quality Improvement' day.
B. Create a quality control department and give the head of the department ultimate responsibility for quality improvement.
C. Implement of a formal quality control program with worker and management involvement.
D. Establish financial incentive packages for worker.
E. A and D
ANS: C
333. Team members want to work for a project manager that can provide them with career path planning. In which organizational form is career
path planning difficult for project employees?
A. Matrix
B. Pure project
C. Project coordinator
D. Project expediter
E. Classical/traditional
ANS: B
334. The swiftest and most effective communications take place among people with
A. common points of view
B. dissimilar interests
C. advanced degrees
D. the ability to reduce perception barriers
E. good encoding skills
ANS: A
335. Typically, during which phase in a project life cycle are most of the project expenses incurred.
A. Concept phase
B. Development of design phase
C. Execution phase.
D. Termination phase.
E. None of the above
ANS: C
336. Communication always makes use of.
A. symbols
B. words
C. language
D. gestures
E. All of the above.
ANS: E
337. Fixed-price contracts place more risk on the _____ .
A. owner
B. contractor
C. seller
D. B and C
E. All of the above.
ANS: D
338. The best way to insure quality conformance is to _____.
A. distribute the responsibility to subordinates.
B. maintain total control.
C. train each worker to implement the work.
D. inspect quality into the project.
E. None of the above.
ANS: C
339. The project charter is developed by:
A. senior management
B. the customer
C. the project manager
D. both A and C
E. None of the above.
ANS: D
340. When a project manager is running over the budgeted costs, the project manager can typically _____ to attempt to get the project back on
budget.
A. Reduce features and/or functionality
B. Increase risk.
C. Incur a schedule slippage (to obtain more favorable pricing due to lengthened delivery times)
D. All of the above.
E. A and B only
ANS: D
341. Which of the following fall(s) under the responsibilities of a project manager?
A. Labor relations with project personnel
B. Affirmative action
C. Personnel training
D. Discrimination and equal employment opportunity
E. All of the above
ANS: E
342. A legally binding document offered unilaterally is a _____ .
A. purchase order
B. scope of work deｓcription
C. contract stipulation
D. level of effort proposal
E. request for proposal
ANS: A
343. A technical requirement has which of the following characteristics:
A. easy to understand
B. a communication tool between the user and the design team
C. written in non-technical language
D. developed in cooperation with the user
E. typically describe physical dimensions and performance requirements
ANS: E
344. If a project manager communicates a verbal message to a subordinate, and the subordinate leaves without saying a word, the project
manager should assume:
A. the message was understood
B. the message was not understood
C. the subordinate discarded the information
D. the information was not appropriate
E. None of the above.
ANS: E
345. Inspection of a complex project according to specifications is accomplished by _____.
A. inspection by attributes.
B. cyclical inspection
C. quality conformance inspection
D. original inspection
E. None of the above.
ANS: C
346. The behavioral responsibilities of a project manager may also include dealing with:
A. The public
B. Regulatory personnel
C. The legal environment
D. Environmental issues
E. All of the above
ANS: E
347. The difference between the BCWS and the BCWP is referred to as the:
A. Schedule variance
B. Cost variance.
C. Estimate of completion
D. Actual cost of the work performed
E. None of the above
ANS: A
348. "Paraphrasing" is most closely associated with which part of the communication process?
A. encoding
B. decoding
C. barriers
D. feedback
E. None of the above.
ANS: D
349. A Gantt chart is useful in determining:
A. the level of effort for a task
B. when a task starts and stops
C. how tasks are related to each other
D. who is assigned to do a task
E. All of the above.
ANS: B
350. A contract originated bilaterally may be developed by _____ .
A. quotation request from suppliers
B. proposal request
C. bid invitation release
D. B and C
E. All of the above.
ANS: E
351. In a matrix organizational form, which factor(s) make it difficult for a project manager to provide a valid input into the employee's performance
review?
A. Not working directly with the assigned functional employees
B. Employees spend only a short amount of time assigned to the project
C. Not being knowledgeable enough to evaluate employees on technical judgment
D. All of the above
E. A and B only
ANS: D
352. Upon completion of 75% of the project, the original schedules and cost estimates that were submitted at the inception of the project are
referred to as the:
A. Baseline costs
B. Budgeted costs.
C. Estimates upon completion costs
D. Scheduled costs
E. None of the above
ANS: A
353. Which of the following is not a definition to determine a product's ability to operate as intended?
A. distance
B. performance
C. function
D. condition
E. All are definitions
ANS: E
354. A work breakdown structure is most useful for:
A. identifying individual tasks for a project
B. scheduling the start of tasks
C. developing a cost estimate
D. determining potential delays
E. A and C
ANS: E
355. Reaching an understanding of concessions is accomplished in the _____ stage of negotiations.
A. protocol
B. probing
C. scratch bargaining
D. closure
E. agreement
ANS: D
356. The primary consideration of product management is to know the _____.
A. probability of product's performance with specified parameters
B. ability the product has to perform its intended function
C. ability of a product to be produced within existing parameters
D. functionality the product will provide over its useful life
E. All of the above
ANS: D
357. The reason that cost management is so difficult in project management is that:
A. Projects by definition and nature are non-recurring events and are therefore difficult to predict.
B. There are no tools for identifying project tasks.
C. Project managers do not care about tracking costs, as only schedules are important to all project managers.
D. A and B only
E. B and C only
ANS: A
358. Using visual aids during management/customer presentations will:
A. hold the interest of the audience
B. strengthen the learning process by adding a visual dimension to the auditory dimension
C. stay in view longer, thus bringing back listeners who may have strayed
D. All of the above.
E. A and B only
ANS: D
359. Which of the following organizational forms would be likely to have an individual with the title of Vice President for Project Management?
A. Classical / traditional
B. Pure project
C. Matrix
D. Project coordinator
E. None of the above
ANS: C
360. A contract is legally binding and must comprise all but one of the following:
A. legal capacity
B. mutual assent
C. approved negotiations
D. consideration
E. legality
ANS: C
361. History has shown that project managers can be trained in a combination of ways. Which method is usually preferred by most companies?
A. Experiential learning, on-the-job
B. Formal education and special course (degreed programs)
C. Professional activities, seminars
D. Individual readings
E. None of the above
ANS: A
362. The purpose of configuration management is to:
A. insure drawings are updated
B. control change throughout the project
C. control change during the production only
D. generate engineering change proposals
E. inform the project manager of changes
ANS: B
363. Three types of written media used in organizations are _____, _____, and ______.
A. manual, letters, guidelines
B. individually-oriented, legally-oriented, organizationally oriented
C. guidelines, forms, procedures
D. letters, guidelines, brochures
E. letters, contracts, policies.
ANS: D
364. Which of the following is considered a direct cost for producing a widget?
A. The cost of the materials used to produce a widget.
B. The labor costs of the workers who actually produced the widget.
C. The rent for the building in which the widget was manufactured
D. The salary of senior management and the project sponsor
E. A and B only
ANS: E
365. _____ best describes the goal of a project in its relationship with the customer, from initial contact through delivery.
A. fitness for use
B. customer satisfaction
C. conformance to requirements
D. fitness for purpose
E. All of the above.
ANS: B
366. A communicator can present information using the following media except:
A. Visual
B. Audio
C. Tactile
D. Performal
E. Both A and B
ANS: D
367. Advantages of the functional (hierarchical) form of organization include _____ and creation of technical competence.
A. Ease of horizontal coordination
B. Clearly defined authority
C. High information processing capability
D. Single voice to customers
E.
ANS: B
368. Quality and _____ are directly related.
A. productivity
B. cost overruns
C. scope control
D. Pareto diagram
E. None of the above.
ANS: A
369. Resource leveling will often affect the project by making it:
A. Shorter.
B. Longer
C. More responsive to customer needs.
D. A and C
E. B and C.
ANS: B
370. Selection criteria for project selection include:
A. cost versus benefit
B. risk
C. contribution towards organizational goals
D. rate of return
E. All of the above.
ANS: E
371. The Statement of Work (SOW) is developed during the _____ cycle.
A. Award
B. Solicitations
C. requirements
D. contractual
E. requisitions
ANS: C
372. Which of the following depreciation methods provides for accelerated depreciation of an asset:
A. Double declining balance.
B. Straight line.
C. Exponential depreciation
D. Double sum of the years digits
E. Double increasing balance
ANS: A
373. A plan has budgeted three weeks of effort for consultants, but the job was done in only two weeks. Calculate the variance:
A. 0.015
B. 0.33
C. 0.75
D. 0.67
E. None of the above.
ANS: B
374. A warranty may not be a remedy for products delivered unfit when _____ .
A. the PM has knowledge of the product, inspected it without relying on the seller's skill
B. the products delivered comply with the plans and specifications of the client
C. the plans and specifications produced by the seller match the completed product.
D. A and B
E. None of the above.
ANS: D
375. Graphical displays of accumulated cost and labor hours, plotted as a function of time, are called:
A. Variance reports
B. S curves
C. Trend analysis
D. Earned value reporting
E. Baseline control
ANS: B
376. Quality control is normally performed by the _____ .
A. QA personnel
B. project team
C. operating personnel
D. project management
E. None of the above.
ANS: C
377. Situations calling for a matrix organization include outside pressure for dual focus, _____ and pressure for high information processing
capability.
A. Pressure for clear accountability
B. Pressure for reduced duplication of effort
C. Pressure for shared resources
D. Pressure for formalized communication
E.
ANS: C
378. The net present value of $110 one year from now at 10% is:
A. 100
B. 120
C. 121
D. $100 less taxes
E. $100 less taxes and interest
ANS: A
379. The receiver filters messages based on all but the following:
A. Language
B. Distance
C. Culture
D. Knowledge
E. Authority/Reputation
ANS: B
380. Going from Level 2 to Level 4 in the work breakdown structure will result in
A. Less estimating accuracy
B. Better control of the project
C. Lower status reporting costs
D. A greater likelihood that something will fall through the cracks
E. None of the above
ANS: E
381. On November 1, $1000 worth of work on task A was supposed to have been done (BCWS); however, the BCWP was $850. Calculate the
schedule variance:
A. -100
B. 100
C. -150
D. 150
E. 0.85
ANS: C
382. The Quality Risk _____ .
A. is minimized through continuous monitoring.
B. is considered a long term risk.
C. will be reflected in the in-service life of the project result.
D. B and C
E. All of the above.
ANS: E
383. The act of conducting or supervising the exchange of information is:
A. Consulting
B. Project Management
C. Communications Management
D. Communications Enhancement
E. None of the above
ANS: C
384. The core function of the project manager is
A. Systems design
B. Client interfacing
C. Quality assurance
D. integration
E.
ANS: D
385. The future value of an annual income flow of $1000 for 2 years at 10% is:
A. 2200
B. 2280
C. 2300
D. 2310
E. None of the above
ANS: D
386. The initial cost of a product and the product's operation and maintenance costs _____ .
A. increases perceived value when balanced.
B. are incidental to each other because initial costs are "sunk"
C. decreases design costs as operation periods increase
D. provides perceived function value and product social dysfunction
E. are integrally related with each other because initial costs are "sunk".
ANS: A
387. All of the following may hinder a person's ability to transmit/receive a message except:
A. Unfamiliarity with topic
B. Withholding information
C. Assuming
D. Noise
E. Preoccupation
ANS: A
388. Quality Improvement Programs are normally associated with which two of the following?
A. Juran and Crosby
B. Juran and Deming
C. Crosby and Deming
D. Deming and the Japanese
E. Crosby and the Japanese
ANS: D
389. The Utility Theory _____ .
A. considers risk propensity of the decision maker.
B. attempts to formalize management's risk considerations.
C. works well with decision tree analysis.
D. is considered highly theoretical.
E. All of the above.
ANS: B
390. The document authorizing functional areas to charge against the project is the:
A. Work authorization form
B. Scope baseline
C. Project charter
D. Management plan
E. Linear responsibility chart
ANS: A
391. The purpose of a dummy activity in an activity-on-arrow diagram is to:
A. Identify a task that could be replaced by another.
B. Take the slack time into account.
C. Show a task that is not necessarily needed.
D. Denote a milestone.
E. Show a dependency relationship.
ANS: E
392. When planning, organizing, coordinating, and controlling a project an important human resources skill or ability would be
A. Building multi-disciplinary teams
B. Managing conflict
C. Communicating orally and in writing with all levels of personnel
D. Involving senior management
E. All are important
ANS: E
393. Which is not a negotiation tactic?
A. Imposing deadlines
B. surprises
C. person with authority is absent
D. reasoning together
E. all are negotiations tactics
ANS: E
394. Which of the following is referred to as sunk cost:
A. management reserve
B. contingency fund
C. cost budgeted for construction under water
D. expended funds over which there is no further control
E. forecasted budget over-runs
ANS: D
395. A project manager believes that modifying the scope of the project may provide added value for the customer. The project manager should:
A. Change the scope baseline
B. Prepare a variance report
C. Call a meeting of the configuration control board
D. Change the project's objectives
E. Postpone the modification until a separate enhancement project is funded after this project is completed according to the original baseline
ANS: E
396. As a project is carried out and slack time is consumed on individual tasks, the slack left over for the remaining tasks is:
A. Insignificant.
B. Reduced.
C. Unchanged.
D. Increased.
E. Doubled.
ANS: C
397. Group brainstorming encourages all of the following except:
A. Team building
B. Uninhibited verbalization
C. Decision making
D. Analysis of alternatives
E. Convergent thinking
ANS: E
398. Non-conformance penalties are a form of _____.
A. quality incentive
B. risk sharing
C. contract negotiations
D. quality assurance programs
E. None of the above.
ANS: C
399. Risk Event Status is defined as _____ .
A. Risk Probability x Amount At Stake.
B. the severity of the consequences.
C. how likely the event is to occur with risk.
D. (Cost + Benefit + Business Risk) / Insurable Risk.
E. B and C
ANS: A
400. There are hard causes of conflict (e.g. conflicting schedules) and soft causes. Soft causes are as important as hard causes. Soft causes
include diversity of disciplinary expertise, _____, and the project manager's power of reward and punishment.
A. Performance tradeoffs
B. Ambiguity of roles
C. Administrative procedures
D. Determining earned value
E.
ANS: B
401. Which of the following is referred to as payback period:
A. the number of periods required to recover the initial investment
B. the rate of return on the investment
C. the number of periods required to bring project cost back to the original budget, based on current performance
D. loan payment schedule
E. None of the above
ANS: A
402. Which one of the following is not an acquisition method?
A. advertising
B. invitation
C. negotiation
D. purchase
E. all are acquisition methods
ANS: A
403. At least _____of the cost of quality are the direct responsibility of management.
A. 0.25
B. 0.85
C. 0.5
D. 1
E. 0.33
ANS: B
404. Fast tracking means to:
A. Speed up a project through parallel tasks.
B. Swap one task for another.
C. Reduce the number of tasks if possible.
D. B and C.
E. None of the above.
ANS: A
405. Formal written correspondence is mandated in which of the following situations:
A. Product undergoes casual in-house testing
B. Client requests additional work not covered under contract
C. Project manager calls a meeting
D. B and C only
E. None of the above
ANS: B
406. The Delphi Method is _____ .
A. used to derive a consensus arriving at a convergent solution
B. useful in determining probability relating to future events.
C. used with questionnaires based on established scenarios.
D. continued as an iterative process until a solution is reached.
E. All of the above.
ANS: E
407. The positive value of conflict is underestimated. Properly managed, conflict is a valuable tool, particularly when
A. A diversion is needed
B. Conflictive situations are in their early stages and emotional involvement is low
C. Conflictive situations are in their late stages and emotional involvement is high
D. Conflict may cause a loss of status or position power
E.
ANS: B
408. Under the terms of 2/10 net 30, the buyer may:
A. deduct 10% of the invoice amount for payment within 30 days
B. deduct 2% of the invoice for payment within 10 days
C. incurs a penalty on 10% for payments more than 30 days late
D. settle the invoice with 2 equal payments; one within 10 days and the other within 30 days
E. None of the above
ANS: B
409. Which of the following can result in misinterpretation of the statement of work?
A. Using imprecise language (i.e. nearly, approximately)
B. Mixing tasks, specifications, special instructions and approvals
C. No pattern, structure or chronological order
D. Wide variation in the size of tasks or details of work
E. All of the above
ANS: E
410. Amount at Stake is the _____ .
A. function of planned time/real time project costs.
B. risk identified in successful project completions.
C. (Standard Project Deviation + Expected Costs)/6
D. cost of investment loss + least cost to restore status quo.
E. inherent risk at conception altered by standard project deviations.
ANS: D
411. In communications management, to assimilate through the mind or senses (as in new ideas) is the process of
A. Understanding
B. Communicating
C. Receiving
D. Decoding
E. Comprehending
ANS: C
412. In general, the best long-lasting approach to settling project conflict is the _____ approach .
A. Problem solving
B. Compromise
C. Withdrawal
D. Smoothing
E. Forcing
ANS: A
413. In which of the following cost estimating techniques are statistics models used:
A. nonparametric cost estimating
B. parametric cost estimating
C. life cycle cost estimating
D. bottom-up estimating
E. All of the above.
ANS: B
414. The _____ specification delineates specific end use capabilities which can be tested in the acceptance procedure.
A. performance
B. functional
C. technical
D. base line
E. operational
ANS: B
415. The contractual statement of work (CSOW)
A. Must be the same as the proposal statement of work
B. Does not identify reporting requirements
C. Can be at a different level of detail (i.e. WBS level) than the proposal statement of work
D. Identifies the contractor's organizational structure for the project
E. All of the above
ANS: C
416. The key ingredient to a successful quality management program are _____.
A. management's quality philosophy, operational quality assurance and operational quality control.
B. quality evaluation methods and functional quality integrators.
C. technical quality administration, the technical quality specifications, and the quality process review.
D. quality evaluation methods, quality progress reviews and the technical quality specifications.
E. All of the above.
ANS: A
417. The key purpose of project control is to:
A. Plan ahead for uncertainties.
B. Generate status reports.
C. Keep the project on track.
D. Develop the project road map.
E. All of the above.
ANS: C
418. CIP embodies which of the following principals?
A. constancy of purpose
B. customer focus and involvement
C. total involvement
D. teamwork
E. All of the above.
ANS: E
419. Excessive flexibility in specifying requirements will _____ the likelihood of time overruns.
A. Reduce.
B. Eliminate.
C. Double
D. Increase
E. Not affect
ANS: D
420. Listening involves more than hearing sounds. The good listener
A. Repeats some of the things said
B. Finishes the speaker's sentences
C. Writes everything down
D. Nods his head frequently
E.
ANS: A
421. Project life cycles provide a better means of measurement of progress and control. The four phases of a project are conceptual development,
_____, _____, and _____.
A. Preliminary planning, detail planning, closeout
B. Implementation, reporting, termination
C. Development, implementation, termination
D. Execution, reporting, finishing
E. Implementation, termination, post-audit review
ANS: C
422. Response Planning is the responsibility of the functional areas and considers
A. mitigation.
B. deflection.
C. contingency planning.
D. unforeseen occurrences.
E. All of the above.
ANS: E
423. The definitive terms of a contract are written during which of the following contract phases?
A. Contract Phase
B. Post-Award Phase
C. Award Phase
D. Pre-Award Phase
E. Requirement Phase
ANS: C
424. The sending or conveying of information from one place to another is the process of
A. Networking
B. Transmitting
C. Interacting
D. Promoting
E. Interfacing
ANS: B
425. Which of the following types of cost are relevant to making financial decisions:
A. sunk cost
B. opportunity cost
C. material cost
D. A and C only
E. B and C only
ANS: E
426. In preparing a good project definition, experienced project managers will:
A. Concentrate mainly on the end product rather than costs or benefits. These come later.
B. Realize that only the "tip of the iceberg" may be showing. As a project manager, you must get beneath it.
C. Understand that a project definition/plan is a dynamic rather than static tool, and thus subject to change.
D. Try to convert objectives into quantifiable terms.
E. All of the above
ANS: E
427. In which of the following is the cost of risk hidden by the contractor?
A. Firm Fixed Price Contract
B. Fixed Price Plus Incentive
C. Cost Plus Fixed Price
D. Cost Plus Percentage of Cost
E. A and B
ANS: D
428. Management of a certain building was receiving complaints about slow elevator service. The solution adopted was to add mirrors in the
lobbies to reduce boredom while passengers waited. This is an example of _____ .
A. Kepner-Tregoe method
B. Potential problem analysis
C. Decision analysis
D. Creative problem solving
E. None of the above
ANS: D
429. Pure Risk differs from Business Risks because Pure Risk's _____ .
A. include chances of both profit or loss associated with the business.
B. include chances of loss and no chances for profit associated with the business.
C. must incur personal loss with business liability.
D. must incur business liability associated with loss of pure profit.
E. B and C
ANS: B
430. The actual configuration of a PERT/CPM network _____ the amount of resources that can be devoted to the project.
A. Increases.
B. Is not affected by
C. Does not require
D. Is heavily dependent upon
E. Is the only means of determining
ANS: D
431. The following types of costs are relevant to making a financial decision except:
A. opportunity costs
B. direct costs
C. sunk cost
D. unavoidable costs
E. None of the above
ANS: C
432. The standard types of communication include all but
A. Written
B. Verbal
C. Telepathic
D. Nonverbal
E. None of the above
ANS: C
433. _____ of the extra costs of the project can often be attributed to a lack of quality.
A. 0.12
B. 0.15
C. 0.2
D. 0.25
E. less than 10%
ANS: C
434. A budget estimate should give the manager cost data accurate to within:
A. -5 to +10 percent of actual cost
B. -25 to +75 percent of actual cost
C. -30 to +75 percent of actual cost
D. -10 to +25 percent of actual cost
E. None of the above
ANS: D
435. All of the following are categories of a milestone in a schedule except:
A. End date.
B. Contract dates.
C. Key events scheduled.
D. Imposed dates.
E. Task duration.
ANS: E
